| Dear Mr. Premack: My
beloved mother read your column weekly. The thing that she didn't do was
follow your advice: when she passed she did not leave a Will. My dad
passed 12 yrs ago. What are the first steps to change the names of the two
homes owned by my parents? (One house has both their names the other only
has mom’s name.) I have 5 siblings and it has been almost a year since mom
passed and no one will take the initiative to start proceedings. What is
our deadline before the state steps in? – KL via Email There are
different approaches available, depending on some factors you did not
discuss in your question. For instance, do either of the houses have
mortgages or other liens against them? Did your mother leave any other
outstanding debts, including credit cards, medical bills or auto loans?
Are the children cooperative or combative?
When your father died 12 years ago, did he have a Will or did he die
intestate like your mother? If he had a Will, was it submitted to probate?
If there is no probated Will, then the situation gets complex. He died in
1991, and the laws in effect at that time left his half interest in the
houses to the five kids. You are many years beyond the legal timeframe for
probate, so an affidavit of heirship will have to suffice for his estate.
Assuming the worst-case scenario – that he did not have a Will, that
she died owing money to creditors, and that the children are not
cooperating – then you should hire an attorney for an Administration and
Determination of Heirship proceeding in your mother’s estate. The court
will supervise each step of the way. Eventually you will obtain a court
order decreeing who the owners are, so that the Administrator can either
sell the houses to divide the money, or deed title to the owners so they
can act like partners.
Assuming the best-case scenario – that he did have a Will leaving his
share to your mother, that she had no creditors, and that the children are
cooperative – then your attorney may be able to keep the estate out of
court with an affidavit of heirship relating to your mother. Either way,
my advice is that you see an experienced probate attorney without further
delay.
Dear Mr. Premack: In Texas, is a husband responsible for his wife’s
debts? My wife got sick and couldn’t pay her credit cards. They told me
that I would have to pay because of community property laws. But I am not
a co-signer on any of her cards, and we are not signers on each others’
bank accounts. – CRD
Under the Texas Family Code, your share of any community property is
not subject to a liability that arises from an act of your spouse, except
under a few circumstances. One is if your wife incurred the debt while
acting as your agent (which is not the case that you present). Another is
if she incurred debts for "necessaries" like food and shelter. I don’t
know what she bought on credit, but if it was not a necessity then your
share of the community property is not liable.
The separate accounts you maintain are called "sole management
community property" and are not liable for her contractual liabilities
(like credit cards) if you are not a party to the contract. If she commits
a tort (like causing an injury in a car accident) then all the community
property is subject to the liability. Her accounts are liable for her just
debts, and may be subject to court order to pay those debts. |