| Dear Mr. Premack: My stepfather raised
me and my brothers and sisters from a young age. He promised us that the
home where he and our mother lived would always be a family home that any
of us could live there if hard times arose. My natural mother has now sold
the house to my brother. Can she do that? Do I have any legal grounds to
avoid the selling of the family home? – L.T. via Email There is a law
called the "statute of frauds" that probably applies in your situation. It
states, basically, that a verbal statement has little legality, if any,
when it comes to the transfer of real property.
The "statute of frauds" is designed to keep real estate transactions
above-board. By requiring agreements regarding land to be in writing, this
law ensures the reliability and enforceability of land deals. Your
stepfather may not have been aware of the law, and may have truly intended
to allow all the stepchildren to have some interest in the house. But
since he made the promise verbally, it was not legally enforceable.
Does that mean you have no other possible way to claim an interest in
the house? It depends on certain facts that do not appear in your letter.
For instance, the implication in your letter is that your stepfather is
deceased. If so, his Last Will and Testament may have contained a
provision giving you some rights in the home. (Or not. It may have simply
left his interest in the home to his wife, in which case she is fully
within her legal rights to have sold it to your brother).
If I am reading too much into your letter and your stepfather is still
alive, then your mother could not have sold the home to your brother
without your stepfather’s participation. Specifically, he would have
signed the deed conveying the house to your brother – a written
transaction that legally trumps any verbal promise he made to you. If he
did not participate, then a solo conveyance by your mother is not legally
adequate (it is homestead and a conveyance must be signed by both owners).
Dear Mr. Premack: My mother is 96 years old and has been in an
assisted living facility for four years. She signed a life estate deed in
1973 putting my sister and me on her house. I also am Agent in her Power
of Attorney. Her income (including rent for the house) no longer covers
her expenses. Can I use the Power of Attorney to sell the house to pay for
her care? Do I need my sister to agree to sell the house and if she does
not agree to sell is there another way to force the issue? -- J.C. via
Email
The life estate deed legally split ownership of the house into two
parts: your mother’s lifetime benefit and the "remainder interest" owned
by you and your sister. Thus, the rentals belong to your mother alone as
part of the lifetime use of the house. However, selling the house affects
all the owners and can only be done with the consent and participation of
all the owners.
If your sister does agree to the sale, she could also gift her portion
of the sales proceeds back to your mother. But if she does not agree to
the sale, you cannot proceed unilaterally. Your only option then is to
consider filing a partition lawsuit to have a Judge force the sale. No
doubt the lawsuit would cost a lot, so enlisting her consent is by far the
better route.
One final possibility: if your mother’s health warrants it, you could
move her to a nursing home and apply for assistance from Medicaid. She
must meet several standards to qualify for Medicaid, and owning a life
estate in her house does not cause a problem. This is an option of last
resort, but one you should consider. |